Mathoverflow 235893 #
Reference: mathoverflow/235893 asked by user Willie Wong
For topological spaces $X$ and $Y$ we say a function $f : X → Y$ is connected is it sends connected sets to connected sets.
Equations
- Mathoverflow235893.IsConnectedMap f = ∀ ⦃s : Set X⦄, IsConnected s → IsConnected (f '' s)
Instances For
By a standard result, every continuous map is connected
A set in $\mathbb{R}$ is connected if and only if it is order-connected and non-empty.
If $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is a connected bijection, then its inverse is also a connected bijection.
The composition of two connected maps is a connected map.
A homeomorphism is a connected map.
If $f : \mathbb{R}^1 \to \mathbb{R}^1$ is a connected bijection, then its inverse is also a connected bijection.
Assume for $n>1$, $f:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n$ is a bijection, where $\mathbb{R}^n$ is equipped with the standard topology. Does the connectedness of (the induced power set map) $f$ imply that of $f^{-1}$?
There exists a connected bijection ℝ → ℝ^2 where the inverse is not connected, proven in mathoverflow/260589 by user Gro-Tsen.