Erdős Problem 897 #
References:
- erdosproblems.com/897
- [Ar25] Archivara Math Research Agent, An Additive Counterexample: Erdős Problem 897 (2025)
- [ArWu25] Aristotle, operated mostly by L. Wu, Lean formalisation of Erdős problem 897 (2025)
- [Wi70] E. Wirsing, A characterization of $\log n$ as an additive arithmetic function. Symposia Math. (1970), 45-57.
- [Wi81] E. Wirsing, Additive and completely additive functions with restricted growth. Recent progress in analytic number theory, Vol. 2 (Durham, 1979), 231--280 (1981).
Let $f(n)$ be an additive function (so that $f(ab)=f(a)+f(b)$ if $(a,b)=1$ such that $\limsup_{p,k} f(p^k) / \log(p^k) = ∞$. Is it true that $\limsup_n (f(n+1)−f(n))/ \log n = ∞$?
The answer is no; this follows from a construction of Wirsing [Wi81], rediscovered by Archivara [Ar25] and formalised in Lean by Aristotle [ArWu25].
Let $f(n)$ be an additive function (so that $f(ab)=f(a)+f(b)$ if $(a,b)=1$) such that $\limsup_{p,k} f(p^k) / \log(p^k) = ∞$. Is it true that $\limsup_n f(n+1)/ f(n) = ∞$?
The answer is no; the same counterexample is formalised in Lean by Aristotle [ArWu25].
Let $f(n)$ be an additive function (so that $f(ab)=f(a)+f(b)$ if $(a,b)=1$) such that $\limsup_{p,k} f(p^k) / \log(p^k) = ∞$ and $f(p^k) = f(p)$ or $f(p^k) = kf(p)$. Is it true that $\limsup_n (f(n+1)−f(n))/ \log n = ∞$?
The known counterexample does not satisfy either of these extra hypotheses, so this variant remains open.
Let $f(n)$ be an additive function (so that $f(ab)=f(a)+f(b)$ if $(a,b)=1$) such that $\limsup_{p,k} f(p^k) / \log(p^k) = ∞$ and $f(p^k) = f(p)$ or $f(p^k) = kf(p)$. Is it true that $\limsup_n f(n+1)/f(n) = ∞$?
The known counterexample does not satisfy either of these extra hypotheses, so this variant remains open.