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FormalConjectures.ErdosProblems.«694»

Erdős Problem 694 #

Reference: erdosproblems.com/694

theorem Erdos694.erdos_694 (fmax fmin : ) :
(∀ (n : ), IsGreatest (Nat.totient ⁻¹' {n}) (fmax n))(∀ (n : ), IsLeast (Nat.totient ⁻¹' {n}) (fmin n))∃ (o : ), Filter.Tendsto o Filter.atTop (nhds 0) ∀ (x : ), sSup {x_1 : | ∃ (n : ) (_ : n x) (_ : ∃ (m : ), m.totient = n), (fmax n) / (fmin n) = x_1} = (Real.exp Real.eulerMascheroniConstant + o x) * Real.log (Real.log x)

Let $f_\max(n)$ be the largest $m$ such that $\phi(m) = n$, and $f_\min(n)$ be the smallest such $m$, where $\phi$ is Euler's totient function. Investigate $$ \max_{n\leq x}\frac{f_\max(n)}{f_\min(n)}. $$

GPT-5.5 Pro (prompted by Price) has proved (see also the comments for a summary) that $$ \max_{n\leq x}\frac{f_{\max}(n)}{f_{\min}(n)}=(e^\gamma+o(1))\log\log x. $$

A Lean formalisation of the reduction exists, conditional on Mertens' product theorem and Linnik's theorem; see the formal proof.

Carmichael has asked whether there is an integer $n$ for which $\phi(m) = n$ has exactly one solution, that is $\frac{f_\max(n)}{f_\min(n)} = 1$.

Erdős has proved that if there exists an integer $n$ for which $\phi(m) = n$ has exactly one solution, then there must be infinitely many such $n$.