Erdős Problem 307 #
Reference: erdosproblems.com/307
Are there two finite set of primes $P$ and $Q$ such that
$$ 1 = \left( \sum_{p \in P} \frac{1}{p} \right) \left( \sum_{q \in Q} \frac{1}{q} \right) $$ ?
Asked by Barbeau [Ba76].
[Ba76] Barbeau, E. J., Computer challenge corner: Problem 477: A brute force program.
Instead of asking for sets of primes, ask only that all elements in the sets be relatively coprime.
Cambie has found several examples when this weakened version is true. For example, $$ 1=\left(1+\frac{1}{5}\right)\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}\right) $$ and $$ 1=\left(1+\frac{1}{41}\right)\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{7}\right). $$
There are no examples known of the weakened coprime version if we insist that $1\not\in P\cup Q$.