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FormalConjectures.ErdosProblems.«299»

Erdős Problem 299 #

References:

theorem Erdos299.erdos_299 :
False ∃ (a : ), StrictMono a (∀ (n : ), 0 < a n) (fun (n : ) => (a (n + 1)) - (a n)) =O[Filter.atTop] 1 ∀ (S : Finset ), iS, 1 / (a i) 1

Is there an infinite sequence $a_1 < a_2 < \dots$ such that $a_{i+1} - a_i = O(1)$ and no finite sum of $\frac{1}{a_i}$ is equal to 1?

There does not exist such a sequence, which follows from the positive solution to [erdosproblems.com/298] by Bloom [Bl21].

This was formalized in Lean 3 by Bloom and Mehta.

theorem Erdos299.erdos_299.variants.density (A : Set ) :
0A0 < A.upperDensity∃ (S : Finset ), S A nS, 1 / n = 1

The corresponding question is also false if one replaces sequences such that $a_{i+1} - a_i = O(1)$ with sets of positive density, as follows from [Bl21].

The statement is as follows: If $A \subset \mathbb{N}$ has positive upper density (and hence certainly if $A$ has positive density) then there is a finite $S \subset A$ such that $\sum_{n \in S} \frac{1}{n} = 1$.