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FormalConjectures.ErdosProblems.«291»

Erdős Problem 291 #

References:

def Erdos291.L (n : ) :

$L_n$ is the least common multiple of $\{1,\ldots,n\}$.

Equations
Instances For
    theorem Erdos291.L_eval :
    L 1 = 1 L 2 = 2 L 3 = 6 L 4 = 12
    def Erdos291.a (n : ) :

    $a_n$ is defined by $\sum_{1\leq k\leq n}\frac{1}{k}=\frac{a_n}{L_n}$.

    Equations
    Instances For
      theorem Erdos291.a_eval :
      a 1 = 1 a 2 = 3 a 3 = 11 a 4 = 25
      theorem Erdos291.erdos_291.parts.i :
      sorry {n : | (a n).gcd (L n) = 1}.Infinite

      Let $n\geq 1$ and define $L_n$ to be the least common multiple of $\{1,\ldots,n\}$ and $a_n$ by $\sum_{1\leq k\leq n}\frac{1}{k}=\frac{a_n}{L_n}$.

      Is it true that $(a_n,L_n)=1$ occurs for infinitely many $n$?

      Is it true that $(a_n,L_n)>1$ occurs for infinitely many $n$?

      Steinerberger has observed that the answer to the second question is trivially yes: for example, any $n$ which begins with a $2$ in base $3$ has $3\mid (a_n,L_n)$.

      theorem Erdos291.erdos_291.variants.steinerberger_generalization (n p : ) (hp : Nat.Prime p) (hpn : p n) :
      have k := n / p ^ Nat.log p n; p (a n).gcd (L n) p (∑ iFinset.Icc 1 k, 1 / i).num

      More generally, if the leading digit of $n$ in base $p$ is $p-1$ then $p\mid (a_n,L_n)$. There is in fact a necessary and sufficient condition: a prime $p\leq n$ divides $(a_n,L_n)$ if and only if $p$ divides the numerator of $1+\cdots+\frac{1}{k}$, where $k$ is the leading digit of $n$ in base $p$. This can be seen by writing $a_n = \frac{L_n}{1}+\cdots+\frac{L_n}{n}$ and observing that the right-hand side is congruent to $1+\cdots+1/k$ modulo $p$. (The previous claim about $p-1$ follows immediately from Wolstenholme's theorem.)

      theorem Erdos291.erdos_291.variants.shiu_heuristic_asymptotic :
      (fun (x : ) => {nFinset.Icc 1 x | (a n).gcd (L n) = 1}.card) =Θ[Filter.atTop] fun (x : ) => x / Real.log x

      This leads to a heuristic prediction (see for example a preprint of Shiu [Sh16]) of $\asymp\frac{x}{\log x}$ for the number of $n\in [1,x]$ such that $(a_n,L_n)=1$.

      In particular, there should be infinitely many $n$, but the set of such $n$ should have density zero. Unfortunately this heuristic is difficult to turn into a proof.

      theorem Erdos291.erdos_291.variants.wu_yan (h_indep : LinearIndependent fun (p : { p : // Nat.Prime p }) => 1 / Real.log p) :
      Filter.limsup (fun (N : ) => {nFinset.Icc 1 N | (a n).gcd (L n) > 1}.card / N) Filter.atTop = 1

      Wu and Yan [WuYa22] have proved, conditional on $\frac{1}{\log p}$ being linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$ for any finite collection of primes $p$ (itself a consequence of Schanuel's conjecture), that the set of $n$ for which $(a_n,L_n)>1$ has upper density $1$.