Erdős Problem 291 #
References:
- erdosproblems.com/291
- [ErGr80, p.34] Erdős, P. and Graham, R., Old and new problems and results in combinatorial number theory. Monographies de L'Enseignement Mathematique (1980).
- [Sh16] P. Shiu, The denominators of harmonic numbers. arXiv:1607.02863 (2016).
- [WuYa22] Wu, Bing-Ling and Yan, Xiao-Hui, On the denominators of harmonic numbers. {IV}. C. R. Math. Acad. Sci. Paris (2022), 53--57.
$L_n$ is the least common multiple of $\{1,\ldots,n\}$.
Equations
- Erdos291.L n = (Finset.Icc 1 n).lcm fun (x : ℕ) => x
Instances For
$a_n$ is defined by $\sum_{1\leq k\leq n}\frac{1}{k}=\frac{a_n}{L_n}$.
Equations
- Erdos291.a n = ∑ k ∈ Finset.Icc 1 n, Erdos291.L n / k
Instances For
Is it true that $(a_n,L_n)>1$ occurs for infinitely many $n$?
Steinerberger has observed that the answer to the second question is trivially yes: for example, any $n$ which begins with a $2$ in base $3$ has $3\mid (a_n,L_n)$.
More generally, if the leading digit of $n$ in base $p$ is $p-1$ then $p\mid (a_n,L_n)$. There is in fact a necessary and sufficient condition: a prime $p\leq n$ divides $(a_n,L_n)$ if and only if $p$ divides the numerator of $1+\cdots+\frac{1}{k}$, where $k$ is the leading digit of $n$ in base $p$. This can be seen by writing $a_n = \frac{L_n}{1}+\cdots+\frac{L_n}{n}$ and observing that the right-hand side is congruent to $1+\cdots+1/k$ modulo $p$. (The previous claim about $p-1$ follows immediately from Wolstenholme's theorem.)
This leads to a heuristic prediction (see for example a preprint of Shiu [Sh16]) of $\asymp\frac{x}{\log x}$ for the number of $n\in [1,x]$ such that $(a_n,L_n)=1$.
In particular, there should be infinitely many $n$, but the set of such $n$ should have density zero. Unfortunately this heuristic is difficult to turn into a proof.
Wu and Yan [WuYa22] have proved, conditional on $\frac{1}{\log p}$ being linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$ for any finite collection of primes $p$ (itself a consequence of Schanuel's conjecture), that the set of $n$ for which $(a_n,L_n)>1$ has upper density $1$.