Mathoverflow 347178 #
Reference: mathoverflow/347178 asked by user Biagio Ricceri
Let $f\colon ℝ^n → ℝ, n ≥ 2$ be a $C^1$ function. Is it true that $$\sup_{x\in {\bf R}^n}f(x)=\sup_{x\in {\bf R}^n}f(x+\nabla f(x))$$?
Reference: mathoverflow/347178 asked by user Biagio Ricceri
Let $f\colon ℝ^n → ℝ, n ≥ 2$ be a $C^1$ function. Is it true that $$\sup_{x\in {\bf R}^n}f(x)=\sup_{x\in {\bf R}^n}f(x+\nabla f(x))$$?