Mathoverflow 339137 #
Why do polynomials with coefficients 0,1 like to have only factors with 0,1 coefficients?
Reference: mathoverflow/339137 asked by user Sil
theorem
mathoverflow_339137
(P Q R : Polynomial ℝ)
(hP : P.Monic)
(hQ : Q.Monic)
(hp : ∀ c ∈ P.coeffs, 0 ≤ c)
(hq : ∀ c ∈ Q.coeffs, 0 ≤ c)
(h : R = P * Q)
(hR : IsZeroOne R)
:
Let $P(x), Q(x) ∈ ℝ[x]$ be two monic polynomials with non-negative coefficients. If $R(x) = P(x)Q(x)$ is a $0,1$ polynomial (coefficients only from $\{0,1\}$), then $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are also $0, 1$ polynomials.