Erdős Problem 699 #
Reference: erdosproblems.com/699
Erdős Problem 699. Is it true that for every $1 \le i < j \le n / 2$ there exists a prime $p \ge i$ with $p \mid \gcd\big(\binom{n}{i}, \binom{n}{j}\big)$?
Erdős and Szekeres conjectured that, apart from a finite exceptional set of triples (n, i, j),
one can always take p > i in the prime divisor statement.