Erdős Problem 396 #
Reference: erdosproblems.com/396
Is it true that for every $k$ there exists $n$ such that $$\prod_{0\leq i\leq k}(n-i) \mid \binom{2n}{n}?$$
Reference: erdosproblems.com/396
Is it true that for every $k$ there exists $n$ such that $$\prod_{0\leq i\leq k}(n-i) \mid \binom{2n}{n}?$$