Erdős Problem 316 #
Reference: erdosproblems.com/316
Is it true that if $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}∖{1}$ is a finite set with $\sum_{n \in A} \frac{1}{n} < 2$ then there is a partition $A=A_1 \sqcup A_2$ such that $\sum_{n \in A_i} \frac{1}{n} < 1$ for $i=1,2$?
This is not true in general, as shown by Sándor [Sa97].
[Sa97] S'{A}ndor, Csaba, On a problem of Erdős. J. Number Theory (1997), 203-210.
It is not true if A
is a multiset (easier)
More generally, Sándor shows that for any $n≥2$ there exists a finite set $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}∖{1}$ with $\sum_{n \in A} \frac{1}{k} < n$ , and no partition into $n$ parts each of which has $\sum_{n \in A_i} \frac{1}{k} < 1$.