Erdős Problem 1072 #
Reference: erdosproblems.com/1072
Is it true that $f(p)/p \to 0$ for $p \to \infty$ in a density 1 subset of the primes?
Erdős, Hardy, and Subbarao [HaSu02], believed that the number of $p \le x$ for which $f(p)=p−1$ is $o(x/\log x)$.
[HaSu02] Hardy, G. E. and Subbarao, M. V., A modified problem of Pillai and some related questions. Amer. Math. Monthly (2002), 554--559.